Orthopedics · Upper Limb Trauma (Clavicle, Shoulder, Elbow, Forearm, Hand)

A 45-year-old presents with recurrent anterior shoulder dislocation. Radiograph reveals a Hill-Sachs lesion occupying 25% of the humeral head and a glenoid bone loss of 30% (inverted pear glenoid). The Instability Severity Index Score (ISIS) is 8. The most appropriate surgical treatment is:

  • A Arthroscopic Bankart repair
  • B Open Latarjet coracoid transfer procedure
  • C Bone block augmentation with iliac crest graft (Eden-Hybinette)
  • D Remplissage (posterior capsulodesis into Hill-Sachs defect) alone
Correct answer: B. Open Latarjet coracoid transfer procedure

Explanation

Glenoid bone loss >25% (inverted pear glenoid) is a predictor of failure of soft tissue Bankart repair — a recurrence rate approaching 70% at 2 years. The Latarjet procedure transfers the coracoid with conjoined tendon to the anterior glenoid rim, achieving three effects: (1) bony augmentation of the glenoid arc, (2) sling effect of the conjoined tendon blocking subluxation in abduction-external rotation, and (3) subscapularis reinforcement via the capsule. Arthroscopic Bankart (A) alone is contraindicated with significant bone loss. Remplissage (D) treats the humeral head defect (Hill-Sachs) but not the glenoid bone loss.

Reference: Maheshwari Essential Orthopaedics, 6th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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