A 32-year-old fell from height and sustained a burst fracture of L1 vertebra with 45% canal compromise and intact neurology. According to the TLICS (Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity) score, which statement about scoring is CORRECT?

• A All three statements are correct ✓
• B TLICS score of ≥5 is an indication for surgical stabilization
• C Burst fracture morphology scores 2 points in TLICS
• D Intact neurology scores 0 in the neurological component

Explanation

The TLICS (Thoracolumbar Injury Classification and Severity Score) assigns points in three domains: Injury morphology (compression=1, burst=2, translation-rotation=3, distraction=4); Posterior ligamentous complex integrity (intact=0, indeterminate=2, disrupted=3); Neurological status (intact=0, nerve root injury=2, complete cord/conus=2, incomplete cord/cauda=3). Total score: ≤3 = non-operative; =4 = either; ≥5 = surgical. In this case: burst fracture=2, intact PLC (assume 0 unless noted), intact neurology=0 → total ≤3 may be treated conservatively. All three individual statements in the question are correct.

Reference: Maheshwari Essential Orthopaedics, 6th ed.

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Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.