Orthopedics · Metabolic Bone Diseases (Osteoporosis, Osteomalacia, Paget's)

A 70-year-old woman sustains a vertebral compression fracture spontaneously. DXA scan shows a T-score of -2.8. Serum calcium, phosphate, and alkaline phosphatase are normal. The most appropriate primary treatment is:

  • A Calcium and vitamin D supplementation alone
  • B Hormone replacement therapy with oestrogen
  • C Calcitonin injections
  • D Bisphosphonate therapy (e.g., alendronate) with calcium and vitamin D
Correct answer: D. Bisphosphonate therapy (e.g., alendronate) with calcium and vitamin D

Explanation

A T-score of -2.5 or below defines osteoporosis by WHO criteria, and a fragility fracture at -2.8 indicates established osteoporosis requiring pharmacological intervention. Bisphosphonates (alendronate, risedronate) are the first-line agents; they inhibit osteoclastic bone resorption, reduce vertebral fracture risk by approximately 50%, and are given with calcium and vitamin D supplementation. Normal biochemistry excludes osteomalacia, which would have a different treatment approach.

Reference: Maheshwari Essential Orthopaedics, 6th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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