Orthopedics · Lower Limb Trauma (Hip, Femur, Knee, Tibia, Foot)

A 26-year-old man lands on a plantarflexed foot from a height and has persistent midfoot pain. Weight-bearing radiographs show diastasis of more than 2 mm between the bases of the first and second metatarsals with a small bony fragment in the interval. The most appropriate management is:

  • A Elevated shoe insert and gradual return to activity
  • B Open reduction and internal fixation of the tarsometatarsal joint
  • C Short leg cast for six weeks without reduction
  • D Primary arthrodesis of the whole midfoot
Correct answer: B. Open reduction and internal fixation of the tarsometatarsal joint

Explanation

Diastasis greater than 2 mm at the first-second metatarsal base with the fleck sign (avulsion of the Lisfranc ligament attachment) confirms a displaced Lisfranc injury. These injuries require anatomical open reduction and internal fixation, usually with screws across the second tarsometatarsal joint, because malreduction leads to painful post-traumatic arthritis. Conservative care is reserved for truly nondisplaced sprains, and primary arthrodesis is considered mainly for severe comminution.

Reference: Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, 9th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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