Orthopedics · Lower Limb Trauma (Hip, Femur, Knee, Tibia, Foot)

A 75-year-old woman with a displaced intracapsular femoral neck fracture (Garden type IV) is seen 12 hours after injury. She is fit for surgery (ASA II). The optimal treatment to allow immediate full weight-bearing and avoid the risk of avascular necrosis is:

  • A Cannulated screw fixation (3 parallel screws)
  • B Dynamic hip screw (DHS) fixation
  • C Hemiarthroplasty (unipolar or bipolar)
  • D Total hip replacement if the patient is medically fit and functionally active pre-injury
Correct answer: D. Total hip replacement if the patient is medically fit and functionally active pre-injury

Explanation

In elderly patients with displaced intracapsular femoral neck fractures, internal fixation risks avascular necrosis (30–40%) and fixation failure. For physiologically fit, independently ambulant patients (as this patient is — ASA II, fit for surgery), NICE and AAOS guidelines recommend total hip replacement (THR) over hemiarthroplasty because it offers superior functional outcomes, lower rates of reoperation, and better long-term pain relief. Hemiarthroplasty (C) is appropriate for less active, lower-demand elderly patients or those unsuitable for THR (limited life expectancy, cognitive impairment). Internal fixation (A/B) is reserved for non-displaced or valgus impacted (Garden I/II) fractures.

Reference: Maheshwari Essential Orthopaedics, 6th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 23,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Lower Limb Trauma (Hip, Femur, Knee, Tibia, Foot) MCQs

See all Lower Limb Trauma (Hip, Femur, Knee, Tibia, Foot) MCQs →