Orthopedics · Inflammatory and Metabolic Arthropathy — Orthopedic Management

A 48-year-old woman with ankylosing spondylitis presents 2 weeks after a minor motor vehicle accident with acute severe mid-thoracic pain. Imaging shows a three-column fracture through an ankylosed T7-T8 segment with minimal displacement. The optimal management is:

  • A TLSO brace and bed rest for 6 weeks
  • B Percutaneous vertebroplasty
  • C Anterior corpectomy with cage reconstruction
  • D Posterior long-segment instrumentation and fusion (pedicle screws 3 levels above and below)
Correct answer: D. Posterior long-segment instrumentation and fusion (pedicle screws 3 levels above and below)

Explanation

Ankylosed spine fractures behave like long bone fractures with high instability and nonunion risk. Long-segment posterior fixation (minimum 3 levels above and below) is the standard surgical treatment due to the brittle bone and lever-arm mechanics. Brace management carries high failure and neurologic deterioration risk. Anterior surgery alone is insufficient. Vertebroplasty is contraindicated in three-column injuries with posterior involvement.

Reference: Rockwood and Green's Fractures in Adults, 9th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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