Orthopedics · Bone Tumors (Benign and Malignant)

An 18-year-old male presents with a distal femur lesion showing an aggressive periosteal reaction with 'sunray spicules' on X-ray, soft tissue extension, and serum alkaline phosphatase of 450 IU/L. Staging workup reveals pulmonary nodules. The MOST appropriate initial treatment is:

  • A Immediate wide local excision with endoprosthesis
  • B Palliative radiotherapy to the primary lesion
  • C Radical amputation above the knee
  • D Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (MAP protocol) followed by limb salvage surgery
Correct answer: D. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (MAP protocol) followed by limb salvage surgery

Explanation

This is osteosarcoma (distal femur, adolescent, elevated ALP, sunray spiculation, soft tissue extension, pulmonary metastases). The current standard of care per COG/ESMO guidelines is neoadjuvant (pre-operative) chemotherapy using the MAP protocol (Methotrexate, Adriamycin/doxorubicin, Cisplatin) for 8–10 weeks, followed by definitive surgery (limb salvage or amputation), followed by adjuvant chemotherapy. Neoadjuvant therapy allows assessment of histological response (>90% necrosis = good prognosis) and reduces tumor size for limb salvage. Immediate surgery without chemotherapy worsens outcomes. Even with metastases, multimodal therapy including resection of metastases is attempted.

Reference: Maheshwari Essential Orthopaedics, 6th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 23,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Bone Tumors (Benign and Malignant) MCQs

See all Bone Tumors (Benign and Malignant) MCQs →