Ophthalmology · Neuro-Ophthalmology (Visual Pathway, Pupillary Reflexes, Optic Nerve, Gaze)

A 38-year-old man reports blurred vision in the left eye for 3 months. Visual fields show a dense central scotoma in the left eye and a superotemporal field defect in the right eye. MRI shows a mass at the left optic nerve just anterior to its entry into the chiasm. This pattern, called a junctional scotoma, localizes the lesion to:

  • A The anterior chiasmal junction where the optic nerve meets the chiasm, involving fibres of Wilbrand's knee
  • B The body of the chiasm
  • C The posterior chiasm
  • D The left optic radiations
Correct answer: A. The anterior chiasmal junction where the optic nerve meets the chiasm, involving fibres of Wilbrand's knee

Explanation

B junctional scotoma arises when a lesion damages one optic nerve at its junction with the chiasm. Ipsilateral optic nerve fibres are destroyed, giving a central scotoma, while looping fibres from the contralateral inferonasal retina (Wilbrand's knee) are caught, producing a contralateral superotemporal defect. B pure chiasmal body lesion gives bitemporal defects without a monocular central scotoma, which excludes option B.

Reference: Kanski's Clinical Ophthalmology, 9th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 43,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Neuro-Ophthalmology (Visual Pathway, Pupillary Reflexes, Optic Nerve, Gaze) MCQs

See all Neuro-Ophthalmology (Visual Pathway, Pupillary Reflexes, Optic Nerve, Gaze) MCQs →