A 78-year-old woman with complete uterovaginal prolapse, multiple comorbidities, and poor surgical fitness is not sexually active and has a normal cervical smear. Her surgeon plans a Le Fort partial colpocleisis. A key prerequisite for this operation is:
- A Previous successful vaginal delivery
- B Absence of any future desire for vaginal intercourse and exclusion of endometrial pathology ✓
- C Presence of a well-supported perineal body
- D Normal urodynamic study
Correct answer: B. Absence of any future desire for vaginal intercourse and exclusion of endometrial pathology
Explanation
Le Fort colpocleisis partially obliterates the vagina by denuding and apposing anterior and posterior vaginal walls, so it absolutely requires that the patient will never have intercourse again. Because the cervix becomes inaccessible afterwards, endometrial and cervical malignancy must be excluded beforehand with a normal smear and endometrial sampling. Perineal support and urodynamics are not prerequisites for this operation.
Reference: Te Linde's Operative Gynecology, 12th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.