A 68-year-old woman presents with urgency, frequency, nocturia, and urge incontinence for 6 months. There is no stress leakage. Post-void residual is 30 mL. Pelvic examination shows no prolapse. Which is the first-line pharmacological treatment?
- A Imipramine
- B Duloxetine
- C Oxybutynin ✓
- D Mirabegron
Correct answer: C. Oxybutynin
Explanation
This is classic overactive bladder (OAB) syndrome. Antimuscarinic agents (oxybutynin, tolterodine) are the first-line pharmacological treatment for OAB. Mirabegron (a beta-3 agonist) is second-line or used when anticholinergics are contraindicated. Duloxetine is used for stress urinary incontinence. Imipramine is not first-line.
Reference: Katzung Basic and Clinical Pharmacology, 15th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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