Le Fort partial colpocleisis is planned for an 82-year-old woman with stage III uterovaginal prolapse who is unfit for prolonged anaesthesia. Which condition must be satisfied before this operation?
- A She must be sexually inactive and have no uterine or adnexal pathology ✓
- B She must have completed menopause more than 5 years ago
- C She must have a retroverted uterus
- D She must have genuine stress incontinence
Correct answer: A. She must be sexually inactive and have no uterine or adnexal pathology
Explanation
Le Fort colpocleisis partially obliterates the vagina by creating opposing raw surfaces on the anterior and posterior walls, so coital function is permanently lost. It is therefore restricted to women who are sexually inactive, typically elderly and frail. B dilatation and curettage or hysteroscopy is mandatory beforehand because the obliterated canal prevents any later assessment of the endometrial cavity or cervix. Menopausal duration, uterine position, and coexisting stress incontinence are not prerequisites; occult stress incontinence actually needs evaluation before repair.
Reference: Berek and Novak's Gynecology, 16th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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