Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Genital Tuberculosis

A 26-year-old woman with a known 7 cm right tubo-ovarian abscess presents with sudden worsening of pain, hypotension (BP 82/50 mmHg), pulse 128/min, and guarding with rebound tenderness over the lower abdomen. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

  • A Switch to broader spectrum intravenous antibiotics and reassess in 48 hours
  • B Image-guided percutaneous drainage of the abscess
  • C Repeat transvaginal ultrasound to look for interval change in abscess size
  • D Immediate laparotomy
Correct answer: D. Immediate laparotomy

Explanation

Sudden haemodynamic collapse with peritonism in a woman with a tubo-ovarian abscess indicates rupture of the abscess with free spillage of pus into the peritoneal cavity. Rupture is a surgical emergency requiring immediate laparotomy with lavage and excision or drainage of the source; antibiotics alone carry a very high mortality. Percutaneous drainage suits an intact abscess failing antibiotics, not a ruptured one with septic shock.

Reference: Williams Gynecology, 4th ed.

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