Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Genital Tuberculosis

In a woman with suspected pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) who has a tubo-ovarian abscess of 4 cm detected on ultrasound, she remains febrile after 72 hours of IV antibiotics. The MOST appropriate next step is:

  • A Change to oral antibiotics and discharge
  • B Laparoscopic drainage or aspiration of the abscess
  • C Immediate open laparotomy for salpingo-oophorectomy
  • D CT-guided percutaneous drainage
Correct answer: B. Laparoscopic drainage or aspiration of the abscess

Explanation

Tubo-ovarian abscesses (TOA) that fail to respond to IV antibiotics after 48–72 hours require drainage. Laparoscopic drainage/aspiration is the preferred minimally invasive approach and is associated with preservation of fertility. Larger abscesses (>8 cm) or complex multiloculated TOA may require CT-guided percutaneous drainage or open surgery. Immediate salpingo-oophorectomy is reserved for ruptured TOA or cases where conservative drainage fails. Oral antibiotics alone would be inadequate for a persistent TOA.

Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 17th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 23,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Genital Tuberculosis MCQs

See all Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Genital Tuberculosis MCQs →