Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Genital Tuberculosis

A 25-year-old woman treated for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) 2 years ago now presents with right-sided pelvic pain and a tender right adnexal mass. Ultrasound shows a thick-walled, fluid-filled right adnexal structure 6 cm with internal echoes. WBC is 14,000/µL and CRP is 85 mg/L. The diagnosis is tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). According to current BASHH guidelines, which is the preferred initial management?

  • A Immediate surgical drainage (laparoscopy or laparotomy)
  • B Outpatient oral doxycycline + metronidazole for 14 days
  • C Parenteral broad-spectrum antibiotics (IV cefoxitin + doxycycline or IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole + doxycycline) with reassessment at 72 hours
  • D Ultrasound-guided percutaneous aspiration as first-line in all cases > 3 cm
Correct answer: C. Parenteral broad-spectrum antibiotics (IV cefoxitin + doxycycline or IV ceftriaxone + metronidazole + doxycycline) with reassessment at 72 hours

Explanation

Per BASHH and ACOG guidelines, the initial management of tubo-ovarian abscess involves inpatient admission and IV broad-spectrum antibiotics targeting the polymicrobial aetiology (including anaerobes, gram-negatives, and STI pathogens). Recommended regimens include IV cefoxitin + doxycycline, or ceftriaxone + metronidazole + doxycycline. Surgical intervention (drainage via laparoscopy or image-guided aspiration) is reserved for failure to improve within 72 hours of antibiotics, rupture, or deterioration. Most TOAs (70–80%) respond to conservative antibiotic therapy.

Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 17th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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