Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Pelvic Inflammatory Disease and Genital Tuberculosis

A 24-year-old woman presents with lower abdominal pain, cervical motion tenderness, and adnexal tenderness. She has a 3 cm right adnexal mass on ultrasound with internal echoes and thick walls. WBC 14,200/µL, CRP 85 mg/L. She was treated outpatient with doxycycline and metronidazole 2 days ago without improvement. According to CDC 2021 STI Guidelines, what is the MOST appropriate management for this likely tubo-ovarian abscess?

  • A Continue current oral regimen with reassessment in 72 hours
  • B Hospitalization with IV cefoxitin 2g q6h plus doxycycline 100 mg q12h
  • C Immediate laparoscopic drainage and bilateral salpingectomy
  • D CT-guided transvaginal aspiration as primary intervention
Correct answer: B. Hospitalization with IV cefoxitin 2g q6h plus doxycycline 100 mg q12h

Explanation

CDC 2021 STI guidelines recommend inpatient IV therapy for tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA) regardless of size, due to failure of outpatient therapy in this case. The preferred regimen is IV cefoxitin 2 g q6h plus IV or oral doxycycline 100 mg q12h, continued for at least 24 hours after clinical improvement, followed by oral doxycycline 100 mg q12h for 14 days. Clindamycin plus gentamicin IV is the alternative regimen. Outpatient continuation (option A) is inappropriate given failure to respond at 48 hours. Surgical intervention is reserved for ruptured TOA or TOA unresponsive to 72 hours of IV antibiotics. Routine primary surgical drainage is not endorsed in CDC guidelines.

Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 17th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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