A 28-year-old woman with secondary amenorrhea for 14 months had three dilation and curettage procedures for incomplete miscarriage 2 years ago. Progesterone challenge test shows no withdrawal bleeding. Estrogen-progesterone sequential therapy also fails to induce bleeding. What is the definitive diagnosis?
- A Premature ovarian insufficiency
- B Hypothalamic amenorrhea
- C Pituitary adenoma
- D Asherman syndrome ✓
Correct answer: D. Asherman syndrome
Explanation
Asherman syndrome (intrauterine adhesions) typically follows uterine curettage and presents with amenorrhea unresponsive to both progesterone alone and combined estrogen-progesterone challenge, confirming the endometrium is non-responsive. Hysteroscopy is diagnostic and therapeutic. Multiple C&Cs are the strongest risk factor. Hormone levels remain normal.
Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.