Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Menstrual Disorders, Amenorrhea and Menopause

A 20-year-old woman has primary amenorrhoea. She has normal female secondary sexual characteristics, a blind-ending vagina on examination, and no uterus on MRI. Karyotype returns 46,XY. Which diagnosis best explains this presentation and what is the mechanism?

  • A Turner syndrome (45,X); ovarian dysgenesis prevents oestrogen production
  • B Congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH); excess androgens suppress the HPO axis
  • C Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser (MRKH) syndrome; Müllerian agenesis with normal karyotype
  • D Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS); absent androgen receptor function prevents virilisation despite normal testosterone levels
Correct answer: D. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS); absent androgen receptor function prevents virilisation despite normal testosterone levels

Explanation

Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS) presents as 46,XY with female external phenotype, normal breast development (due to aromatisation of testosterone to oestradiol), absent/sparse pubic and axillary hair, absent uterus and fallopian tubes (because AMH from testes causes Müllerian regression), and a short blind-ending vagina. The androgen receptor (AR) gene is mutated → testosterone cannot act on target tissues → no male differentiation occurs. MRKH syndrome has 46,XX karyotype with Müllerian agenesis and normal ovaries. Turner syndrome has 45,X. CAH causes virilisation, not feminisation, in 46,XY individuals.

Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 17th ed.

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