A 30-year-old woman with infertility has a progesterone level of 0.8 ng/mL on day 21 of her menstrual cycle. What does this finding indicate about her cycle?

• A Anovulation is the most likely explanation ✓
• B Ovulation has occurred and the luteal phase is adequate
• C Luteal phase defect is confirmed
• D Pregnancy should be excluded before interpreting the result

Explanation

B mid-luteal serum progesterone below 3 ng/mL is considered diagnostic of anovulation. B level above 3 ng/mL suggests ovulation has occurred, and levels above 10 ng/mL generally indicate adequate luteal function. The value of 0.8 ng/mL is in the pre-ovulatory range, confirming that ovulation has not occurred in this cycle. This is a standard initial test in the infertility work-up.

Reference: Speroff's Clinical Gynecologic Endocrinology and Infertility, 9th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.