Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Infertility, PCOS, and Contraception

A 24-year-old woman presents with galactorrhea and oligomenorrhea. Serum prolactin is 85 ng/mL (normal <25). TSH is normal. MRI pituitary shows a 6 mm microadenoma. Which is the first-line pharmacotherapy?

  • A Bromocriptine (dopamine agonist)
  • B Transsphenoidal surgery
  • C Levothyroxine
  • D Cabergoline (dopamine agonist)
Correct answer: D. Cabergoline (dopamine agonist)

Explanation

Cabergoline is the first-line dopamine agonist for prolactinomas due to better efficacy, twice-weekly dosing, and better tolerability compared to bromocriptine. Both are dopamine agonists, but cabergoline is preferred. Levothyroxine is for hypothyroidism-induced hyperprolactinemia (TSH is normal here). Surgery is reserved for dopamine agonist resistance or intolerance.

Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 43,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Infertility, PCOS, and Contraception MCQs

See all Infertility, PCOS, and Contraception MCQs →