Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Infertility, PCOS, and Contraception

In assisted reproductive technology (ART), the freeze-all strategy has become increasingly used to prevent ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS). In a GnRH antagonist cycle, a GnRH agonist trigger is used instead of hCG trigger to prevent OHSS. This GnRH agonist trigger works by which mechanism?

  • A Directly binds to LH receptors on granulosa cells, bypassing the flare effect and causing a short, self-limiting LH surge
  • B Inhibits pituitary LH release via upregulation of inhibin B, preventing the mid-cycle LH surge from being too high
  • C Causes an initial flare of endogenous LH and FSH sufficient for oocyte maturation, but this surge is shorter and lower than an hCG trigger, reducing luteal phase support
  • D Acts directly on cumulus cells to promote final oocyte maturation independent of LH receptor stimulation
Correct answer: C. Causes an initial flare of endogenous LH and FSH sufficient for oocyte maturation, but this surge is shorter and lower than an hCG trigger, reducing luteal phase support

Explanation

In GnRH antagonist protocols, the pituitary is not downregulated; therefore, a GnRH agonist trigger can be used to produce an initial 'flare' of endogenous gonadotropins (both LH and FSH) via stimulation of the agonist's own receptor — this provides sufficient LH surge amplitude and duration to complete oocyte maturation and trigger ovulation. However, unlike hCG (which has a prolonged luteal phase effect due to its 36-hour half-life), the endogenous LH surge from a GnRH agonist trigger is shorter (~24 hours), preventing the sustained ovarian hyperstimulation that leads to OHSS. Luteal phase support must then be supplemented.

Reference: Shaw's Textbook of Gynaecology, 17th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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