A 65-year-old nulliparous woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding. She has no history of obesity or diabetes. Endometrial biopsy reveals clear cell carcinoma. Which statement best describes this histological subtype?

• A It is an estrogen-dependent tumor with an excellent prognosis
• B It is the most common subtype associated with Lynch syndrome
• C It arises exclusively from an endometrial polyp
• D It is a Type II tumor with aggressive behavior independent of estrogen ✓

Explanation

Clear cell carcinoma is a Type II endometrial carcinoma. It is highly aggressive, arises in older, often non-obese women, and is not estrogen-dependent. It has a poor prognosis compared to endometrioid adenocarcinoma. Serous and clear cell are the classic Type II subtypes, unrelated to hyperestrogenism.

Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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