Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Antepartum and Postpartum Hemorrhage

A 30-year-old G2P1 at 32 weeks presents with mild vaginal bleeding and regular painful contractions. On examination, the uterus is tender and the fetal heart rate is 170 bpm with reduced variability. The most likely diagnosis is:

  • A Placenta previa
  • B Cervical polyp
  • C Vasa previa
  • D Abruptio placentae
Correct answer: D. Abruptio placentae

Explanation

Abruptio placentae classically presents with painful vaginal bleeding, uterine tenderness, and fetal distress (tachycardia, reduced variability). Placenta previa is painless and the uterus is non-tender. Vasa previa presents with painless bleeding and fetal bradycardia at membrane rupture. Cervical polyp causes painless spotting without contractions or fetal distress.

Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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