Obstetrics & Gynaecology · Anemia, Diabetes and Heart Disease in Pregnancy

A 32-year-old woman with severe iron deficiency anemia (hemoglobin 6.8 g/dL) at 34 weeks gestation is hemodynamically stable with no active bleeding. She has not responded to oral iron after 4 weeks. Which is the most appropriate next step?

  • A Packed red cell transfusion of 2 units over 4 hours with furosemide prophylaxis
  • B Erythropoietin injection subcutaneously three times weekly combined with oral iron
  • C Intramuscular iron dextran daily for 10 days until total iron deficit is repleted
  • D Intravenous ferric carboxymaltose infusion as a single dose, with repeat hemoglobin check in 2-3 weeks
Correct answer: D. Intravenous ferric carboxymaltose infusion as a single dose, with repeat hemoglobin check in 2-3 weeks

Explanation

IV ferric carboxymaltose is the preferred parenteral iron preparation in the second and third trimesters when oral iron is ineffective or not tolerated, as it allows rapid repletion in a single or few doses with good safety data. Distractor A is wrong because transfusion is reserved for hemodynamic instability or symptoms, not a stable patient with time for iron repletion. Distractor C is wrong because IM iron dextran is painful, stains skin, and is no longer preferred. Distractor B is wrong because erythropoietin is reserved for specific scenarios like renal failure, not routine iron deficiency.

Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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