A 24-year-old G2P1 presents at 9 weeks gestation with one day of painless vaginal bleeding. Speculum examination shows blood in the vagina with a closed internal os. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a single intrauterine fetus matching dates with cardiac activity. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A Missed abortion
- B Inevitable abortion
- C Threatened abortion ✓
- D Complete abortion
Correct answer: C. Threatened abortion
Explanation
Threatened abortion is defined by vaginal bleeding in the first half of pregnancy with a closed internal os and a viable fetus on ultrasound. Inevitable abortion requires an open internal os, which this patient does not have. Missed abortion implies fetal demise without expulsion, contradicted by documented cardiac activity. Complete abortion requires expulsion of all products with an empty uterus.
Reference: Williams Obstetrics, 26th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.