Microbiology · Sexually Transmitted Infection Microbiology (Syphilis Serology, GC/Chlamydia NAAT)

A 30-year-old woman screened antenatally has an RPR reactive at 1:4. Her TPPA and FTA-ABS are both non-reactive, and she is asymptomatic. She reports a history of systemic lupus erythematosus on hydroxychloroquine. This pattern is best explained by:

  • A Biological false positive reactivity due to autoimmune disease
  • B Prozone phenomenon masking the treponemal tests
  • C Early primary syphilis before treponemal antibody development
  • D Laboratory error requiring repeat sampling only
Correct answer: A. Biological false positive reactivity due to autoimmune disease

Explanation

Non-treponemal tests detect reagin antibodies against cardiolipin-lecithin-cholesterol antigens. These cross-reacting antibodies occur in SLE, antiphospholipid syndrome, malaria, leprosy, pregnancy, IV drug use, and after vaccination, producing a biological false positive: a reactive RPR or VDRL with negative confirmatory treponemal tests. Prozone affects the non-treponemal test itself through antibody excess, not selectively sparing treponemal assays. In pregnancy, a BFP still warrants repeat testing and follow-up to exclude very early disease, but the serologic pattern here is classic for SLE-related false reactivity.

Reference: Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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