Medicine · Valvular Heart Disease and Infective Endocarditis

A 54-year-old man presents with sudden tearing chest pain radiating to the back. The left brachial pulse is absent while the right radial pulse is normal. A new soft early diastolic murmur is heard and the chest radiograph shows a widened mediastinum. What is the definitive next step?

  • A Intravenous labetalol and transthoracic echocardiographic surveillance every 6 hours
  • B Thrombolysis with tenecteplase followed by anticoagulation
  • C Urgent contrast CT aortography followed by emergency surgical repair
  • D Percutaneous aortic valve replacement for the new aortic regurgitation
Correct answer: C. Urgent contrast CT aortography followed by emergency surgical repair

Explanation

Acute aortic regurgitation with pulse deficit in a patient with tearing chest pain indicates proximal (Stanford type A) aortic dissection involving the root. Type A dissection is a surgical emergency because of risk of tamponade, rupture and stroke; imaging with CT aortography confirms anatomy and branch involvement, then open repair is performed. Medical therapy alone is reserved for uncomplicated distal dissections, and thrombolysis would be catastrophic.

Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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