Medicine · Pulmonology (Asthma, COPD, Tuberculosis, Pneumonia, ILD, Pleural Diseases)

A 24-year-old woman with acute severe asthma presents to the emergency department with silent chest, SpO2 84% on room air, and altered sensorium. Initial nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium have failed. Which is the most appropriate immediate next step?

  • A Intravenous aminophylline infusion
  • B Nebulized adrenaline (epinephrine)
  • C Intravenous magnesium sulfate
  • D Subcutaneous terbutaline
Correct answer: C. Intravenous magnesium sulfate

Explanation

In life-threatening asthma with poor response to initial bronchodilators, intravenous magnesium sulfate (2 g IV over 20 minutes) is recommended by BTS/SIGN and GINA guidelines as the next step before considering intubation. It acts as a smooth muscle relaxant. Aminophylline is no longer recommended due to narrow therapeutic index and lack of additional benefit over beta-agonists plus IV steroids.

Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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