Medicine · Pulmonology (Asthma, COPD, Tuberculosis, Pneumonia, ILD, Pleural Diseases)

A 55-year-old man presents with right-sided pleuritic chest pain. Pleural fluid analysis: protein 5.2 g/dL (serum 7.1), LDH 320 U/L (serum LDH 210 U/L), pH 7.18, glucose 48 mg/dL, WBC 12,000 cells/µL (90% neutrophils). Gram stain is negative. What is the most appropriate initial management?

  • A IV antibiotics and observation
  • B Intrapleural fibrinolytics (alteplase + DNase) alone
  • C Video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) immediately
  • D Chest tube drainage plus IV antibiotics
Correct answer: D. Chest tube drainage plus IV antibiotics

Explanation

This exudate (Light's criteria met: pleural/serum protein ratio >0.5, LDH >200 U/L) with pH <7.2, low glucose, and high WBC represents a complicated parapneumonic effusion requiring drainage. pH <7.2 (or glucose <60, or positive Gram stain/culture) is a definitive indication for chest tube insertion to prevent organizing empyema. Antibiotics alone are insufficient for complicated parapneumonic effusions. Intrapleural fibrinolytics (MIST-2 trial: alteplase + DNase) are added for loculated effusions not resolving with tube drainage. VATS is used for organized empyema stage III.

Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

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