Medicine · Heart Failure and Cardiomyopathies

A 38-year-old woman presents with syncope during exercise. Echocardiography reveals asymmetric septal hypertrophy of 24 mm, systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve, and a resting LVOT gradient of 50 mmHg. She has a family history of sudden cardiac death at age 35 in her brother. What is the most appropriate first-line symptomatic management?

  • A Mavacamten (cardiac myosin inhibitor)
  • B Alcohol septal ablation
  • C Beta-blocker (metoprolol or propranolol)
  • D Surgical myectomy (Morrow procedure)
Correct answer: C. Beta-blocker (metoprolol or propranolol)

Explanation

Beta-blockers are the first-line pharmacological therapy for obstructive HCM, reducing LVOT gradient, improving diastolic filling, and relieving exertional symptoms. Non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (verapamil) are an alternative when beta-blockers are not tolerated. Mavacamten is a novel cardiac myosin inhibitor approved for symptomatic obstructive HCM in adults (EXPLORER-HCM trial) that reduces LVOT gradient and improves symptoms, indicated when beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers fail. Septal reduction therapies (surgical myectomy preferred; alcohol ablation as alternative) are for patients with severe refractory obstruction. Additionally, this patient needs ICD evaluation given her family history.

Reference: Harrison's Principles of Internal Medicine, 21st ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 23,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Heart Failure and Cardiomyopathies MCQs

See all Heart Failure and Cardiomyopathies MCQs →