Medicine · Anemia (Iron Deficiency, Hemolytic, Sickle Cell, Thalassemia)

A 6-year-old boy with beta-thalassemia major has been on regular transfusions since infancy. He has an HLA-identical sibling donor. Which statement about curative treatment is correct?

  • A Allogeneic stem cell transplant is contraindicated in patients under 5 years
  • B Transplant outcome is best when performed before significant iron overload develops
  • C Myeloablative conditioning is not required due to the patient's young age
  • D Gene therapy has replaced stem cell transplant as first-line curative therapy
Correct answer: B. Transplant outcome is best when performed before significant iron overload develops

Explanation

Allogeneic stem cell transplant offers the best chance of cure when performed early, before iron-related organ damage (hepatic, cardiac, endocrine) occurs. Younger age (<5 years) is a favorable prognostic factor, not a contraindication. Myeloablative conditioning is standard. Gene therapy is promising but not yet established as first-line curative therapy.

Reference: Williams Hematology, 10th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.

Sponsored

Want to test yourself?

Create a free account for timed mock tests, mistake tracking, and FSRS spaced-repetition revision across 43,000+ MCQs.

Start free → Log in

More Anemia (Iron Deficiency, Hemolytic, Sickle Cell, Thalassemia) MCQs

See all Anemia (Iron Deficiency, Hemolytic, Sickle Cell, Thalassemia) MCQs →