A 28-year-old man presents with a painless testicular mass confirmed as seminoma. Imaging shows no local inguinal nodal enlargement. To which nodal group would this tumour metastasise first?
- A Superficial inguinal nodes
- B Deep inguinal nodes
- C Para-aortic nodes ✓
- D External iliac nodes
Correct answer: C. Para-aortic nodes
Explanation
The testis develops on the posterior abdominal wall and its lymphatics follow the testicular vessels to the para-aortic nodes. The scrotal skin, by contrast, drains to the superficial inguinal nodes, so a scrotal skin lesion spreads inguinally while a testicular tumour does not. This distinction is a favourite examination point and explains why radical orchidectomy uses an inguinal approach.
Reference: Gray's Anatomy for Students, 4th ed.
High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP
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