A 58-year-old man presents with left-sided hemiplegia, left hemisensory loss, and left homonymous hemianopia — the classic 'three hemisyndrome.' He also has left-sided hemiataxia. Occlusion of which vessel is most likely responsible?

• A Left posterior cerebral artery
• B Left middle cerebral artery at its origin
• C Left anterior choroidal artery ✓
• D Left lenticulostriate artery

Explanation

The anterior choroidal artery supplies the posterior limb of internal capsule, lateral geniculate body, and part of the cerebral peduncle. Its occlusion produces contralateral hemiplegia, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopia — the triad. MCA territory gives hemiplegia and hemisensory loss predominantly with cortical features; PCA infarcts spare motor; lenticulostriate occlusion gives purely motor lacunar stroke.

Reference: BD Chaurasia's Human Anatomy, 8th ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

Written and medically reviewed by the StethoPrep medical team.