A 55-year-old man presents with massive splenomegaly. During splenectomy, the surgeon ligates the splenic vessels at the hilum. Which statement about the lymphatic drainage of the spleen is correct?

• A The spleen has abundant afferent lymphatics draining to para-aortic nodes
• B The spleen drains via afferent lymphatics to the splenic hilar nodes
• C The spleen drains primarily to the celiac nodes via the gastroepiploic vessels
• D The spleen has only efferent lymphatics draining to pancreaticosplenic nodes near the hilum ✓

Explanation

The spleen is unique among organs in having only efferent lymphatics; no afferent lymphatic vessels enter the spleen. Efferent vessels emerge at the hilum alongside the splenic vessels and drain to the pancreaticosplenic lymph nodes. This is a well-established anatomical fact in standard texts. Option A and B are wrong because they claim afferent lymphatics exist in the spleen. Option C incorrectly routes drainage through the gastroepiploic vessels.

Reference: Gray's Anatomy, 42nd ed.

High-yield for: NEET PGINI-CETNExTFMGEUSMLEPLABMRCP

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